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The question may seem naive yet it is bothering me and so I thought I will seek out your opinion. In L1 the curriculum said that the issuer of long term debt carries the debt in his balance sheet initially at face value and then at amortized cost. In L2 when I am reading about inter corporate investments, the curriculum is saying the same thing about investment in held to maturity securities (initially held at face value and then at amortized cost using the effective interest rate method). Does this mean that the value reflected in the books of the bond issuer and the bond holder( if he intends to hold it to maturity) will be the same ? (naturally this would have to be proportionate to the amount of the bond held by the individual bond holder compared to the total debt issued by the bond issuer)
Your opinions are more than welcome!!